MOCK TEST – 01

Created by neet aspirant

MOCK TEST - O1

Boost your rank with this NEET Mock Test! Featuring 180 NCERT-verified questions: Physics (1-45), Chemistry (46-90), and Biology (91-180). Our extensive, topic-covering explanations ensure complete mastery of every concept. Essential practice for medical aspirants—read, learn, and succeed!

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1) A Carnot engine having an efficiency of η = 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is:

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2) The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photon emission from the substance is (approximately):

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3) A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are:

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4) The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:

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5) A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of the stretched wire would be:

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6) Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless. The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is:

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7) A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg·m/s. A force of 0.2 N acts on it in the direction of motion of the body for 10 seconds. The increase in its kinetic energy is:

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8) A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of water in the capillary tube is 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

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9) A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F., because the method involves:

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10) A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O₂ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:

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11) Radioactive material 'A' has a decay constant '8λ' and material 'B' has a decay constant 'λ'. Initially, they have the same number of nuclei (N₀). After what time will the ratio of the number of nuclei of material 'B' to that of material 'A' be 1/e?

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12) A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 μA and is subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. The work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the torque is:

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13) The de-Broglie wavelength (λ) of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is:

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14) One end of a string of length 'l' is connected to a particle of mass 'm' and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed 'v', the net force on the particle (directed towards the center) will be:
(T represents the tension in the string)

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15) The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t² and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is:

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16) Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + Δe). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then Δe is of the order of:

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17) The ratio of wavelengths of the last line (series limit) of the Balmer series and the last line (series limit) of the Lyman series is:

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18) A Young’s double slit experiment is performed first in air and then in a liquid medium. It is observed that the 10th bright fringe in the medium occupies the same position as the 6th bright fringe in air. The refractive index (μ) of the medium is:

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19) A particle performs linear simple harmonic motion (SHM) with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at a distance of 3 cm from its mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is numerically equal to the magnitude of its acceleration. The time period of this motion (in seconds) is:

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20) The photoelectric threshold wavelength for a specific metal surface is 3500 Å. If ultraviolet light of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on the surface, the maximum velocity of the ejected electrons is:
(Given: h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg, 1 Å = 10⁻¹⁰ m)

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21) A physical quantity with the dimensions of length (L) can be formed using the universal gravitational constant (G), Planck's constant (h), and the speed of light (c). The correct combination for this length is:

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22) Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speeds of 25 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car (source) blows a horn with a frequency of 500 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, the frequency heard by the driver of the second car (observer) is:

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23) Question: In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance (4 kΩ) is 4 V. If the current gain (β) of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 2 kΩ, the voltage gain and power gain of the amplifier are:

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24) A spring of force constant 'k' is cut into two parts whose lengths are in the ratio 1:3. The force constant of the longer part is:

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25) The acceleration due to gravity at a height 2 km above the Earth's surface is the same as at a depth 'd' below the surface. If the radius of the Earth is 6400 km, the value of 'd' is:

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26) Identify which of the following statements regarding modern physics is correct:

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27) A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 1/5. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 60 K, its efficiency doubles. The initial temperature of the source and the sink are:

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28) If θ₁ and θ₂ are the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip θ is given by:

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29) Two astronauts, each of mass 100 kg, are floating in gravitational free space with no other objects nearby. They are initially at rest and separated by a distance of 10 m. If they are left to move under their mutual gravitational attraction, they will:

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30) In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square (rms) value of the electric field is Erms = 12 V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is:

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31) The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to a uniform pressure ‘P’, the fractional decrease in its radius is:

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32) The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths λ1 = 4000 Å and λ2 = 6000 Å is:

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33) Consider a drop of rain water having mass 2 g falling from a height of 2 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 40 m/s. Take g = 10 m/s² constant. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is:

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34) A spherical black body with a radius of 15 cm radiates 600 W power at 600 K. If the radius is halved and the temperature is doubled, the power radiated in watt would be:

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35) Two blocks X and Y of masses 2m and m respectively are linked by a massless spring and are hanging vertically from a rigid support through a light string as shown in the figure. The system is in equilibrium. If the string is suddenly cut, the magnitudes of accelerations of X and Y immediately after the cut are respectively:

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36) Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45° with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is:

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37) A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 10⁴ turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π² Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

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38) Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be:

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39) A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a constant force of 30 N?

EXPLANATION -
1. When a plane mirror is rotated by an angle θ, the reflected ray rotates by an angle 2θ.
2. From the geometry of the triangle formed by the source and the scale:
tan(2θ) = perpendicular / base = y / x
3. Since θ is a very small angle, tan(2θ) is approximately equal to 2θ.
4. Therefore: 2θ = y / x
5. Solving for θ: θ = y / 2x

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40) A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle θ, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle θ is given by:

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41) A rectangular black body has dimensions of 12 cm x 10 cm and radiates a power of 60 Watts at a temperature of 500 K. If the dimensions of the body are reduced by half (to 6 cm x 5 cm) and the temperature is increased to 1000 K, what will be the new power radiated by the body?

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42) A spring with a force constant k is cut into three separate segments whose lengths are in the ratio of 1:2:3. These segments are then connected in a parallel configuration, and the new force constant for this combined system is denoted as k'. What is the value of the ratio k'/k?

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43) If Force (F), Velocity (V), and Time (T) are taken as the fundamental physical quantities, what will be the dimensional formula for Mass?

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44) In the context of genetic blood disorders involving globin chain synthesis, such as thalassemia and sickle cell anemia, which of the following statements is scientifically accurate?

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45) Which of the following pollination methods is most typical for flowers that contain a solitary ovule within the ovary and are clustered into a dense inflorescence?

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46) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

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47) Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

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48) HgCl₂ and I₂ both when dissolved in water containing I⁻ ions, the pair of species formed is:

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49) Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:

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50) Which of the following is the incorrect statement?

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51) Concentration of the Ag⁺ ions in a saturated solution of Ag₂C₂O₄ is 2.2 × 10⁻⁴ mol L⁻¹. Solubility product (Ksp) of Ag₂C₂O₄ is:

52 / 180

52) The species, having bond angles of 120° is:

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53) If the molality of a dilute solution is doubled, the value of the molal depression constant (Kf) will be:

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54) It is because of inability of ns^2electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that:

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55) Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction:
CH3-C≡CH --(H2O, H2SO4, HgSO4)--> Intermediate (A) --> Product (B)

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56) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

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57) Which one of the following is the wrong statement?

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58) A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy (delta U) of the gas in Joules will be:

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59) Which one is the correct order of acidity?

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60) In the electrochemical cell:
Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01 M) || CuSO4 (1.0 M) | Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? (Given, RT/F = 0.059)

61 / 180

61) The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is:
I. Aniline (C6H5NH2)
II. p-Nitroaniline (p-NO2-C6H4NH2)
III. p-Toluidine (p-CH3-C6H4NH2)

62 / 180

62) In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond?

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63) The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl settled as precipitate when AgNO3 in excess is added to the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is:

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64) Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code.

Column I                  Column II
(Compound)              (Geometry)


(A) XX′                      (iii) Linear


(B) XX′3                (i) T-shape


(C) XX′5              (iv) Square pyramidal


(D) XX′7              (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal


 

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65) The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:

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66) A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be:

(Given that: SrCO3(s) <=> SrO(s) + CO2(g), Kp = 1.6 atm)

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67) The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

68 / 180

68) Which of the following is a sink for CO?

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69) The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?

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70) Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is:

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71) Identify the INCORRECT statement among the following regarding chemical properties and periodic trends:

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72) Identify the species that represents a sigma-bonded organometallic compound:

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73) Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

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74) For a given reaction, Delta H = 35.5 kJ mol-1 and Delta S = 83.6 J K-1 mol-1. The reaction is spontaneous at:
(Assume that Delta H and Delta S do not vary with temperature)

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75) Which technique is most appropriate for separating a 1 : 1 mixture of ortho-nitrophenol and para-nitrophenol?

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76) Identify the pair of species that are ISOSPECTRAL and ISOSTRUCTURAL (having the same number of atoms and the same molecular geometry):

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77) A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2 sec^-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

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78) Which of the following gases can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution?

79 / 180

79) The heating of phenyl-methyl ether with HI produces:

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80) Pick out the correct statement with respect to the complex [Mn(CN)6] 3-:

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81) Which of the following alkali metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in an aqueous solution?

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82) Which of the following chemical reactions is the most appropriate method for the synthesis of an ether?

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83) The extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the raw ore with a specific solution, followed by the recovery of the metal through displacement. What are the reagents used in these two steps?

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84) Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment?

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85) The solubility of alkaline earth metal sulfates in water follows which decreasing order?

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86) For a first-order chemical reaction, if the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period (t 1/2) will:

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87) Which of the following carbonyl compounds is most reactive toward nucleophilic addition?

88 / 180

88) Identify the correct order of increasing basic strength for methyl-substituted amines in an aqueous solution:

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89) What is the oxidation state of Chromium in the "butterfly" structured molecule CrO5?

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90) Which of the following is classified as an intensive property in thermodynamics?

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91) Which hormone is primarily responsible for the 'Triple Response' in plants, including horizontal growth of seedlings?

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92) The interaction where one species is harmed and the other remains unaffected is known as:

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93) Which of the following associations is an example of 'Ectoparasitism'?

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94) The functional unit of inheritance that occupies a specific locus on a chromosome is called a/an:

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95) In the context of the 'Evil Quartet' of biodiversity loss, which factor is considered the most significant?

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96) Which of the following is a classic example of an 'Ex-situ' conservation method for biodiversity?

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97) During the separation of DNA fragments by agarose gel electrophoresis, the fragments move towards the:

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98) Which specific region of the biosphere is legally protected and allows no human activity?

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99) Which of the following describes the function of the enzyme 'Helicase' during DNA replication?

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100) In Angiosperms, the unique process of double fertilization involves which of the following events?

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101) The 'Lock and Key' hypothesis explains that enzymes are:

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102) Which stage of meiosis involves the division of the centromere and separation of sister chromatids?

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103) The process by which nutrient-rich water leads to algae growth and oxygen depletion is:

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104) Which set of structures represents 'Analogous' organs in animals?

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105) According to Hugo de Vries, evolution is caused by sudden, large changes in a population called:

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106) Which of the following is an example of an autosomal dominant Mendelian disorder?

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107) The structural and functional link between the developing fetus and the maternal body is the:

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108) In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross, what is the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (aabb)?

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109) What is the primary function of the specialized cells called 'Statocytes' found in the root cap?

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110) Which of the following processes in a plant cell occurs within the stroma of the chloroplast?

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111) Which of the following is considered an 'Ex-situ' method for the conservation of rare or threatened animal and plant species?

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112) Plants that inhabit saline marshy areas and possess specialized respiratory roots called pneumatophores are:

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113) Botanically, the fruit of a coconut (Cocos nucifera) is classified as a:

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114) In a growing root, the specialized cells known as root hairs arise from which specific region?

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115) How do Viroids differ specifically from Viruses?

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116) The symbiotic association between fungi and the roots of higher plants, known as Mycorrhizae, is an example of:

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117) In biotechnology, the collective processes of separation and purification of a protein product before it is marketed are termed:

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118) Which double-membrane-bound cell organelle is the primary site for the extraction of energy from carbohydrates to synthesize ATP?

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119) To which taxonomic 'Order' does the Horse (Equus ferus) belong?

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120) Which of the following is a classic example of a colonial alga found in freshwater?

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121) In which of the following environments can plants arranged into well-defined vertical layers (stratification) be seen most clearly?

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122) In recombinant DNA technology, a gene whose expression helps to identify and eliminate non-transformed cells is a:

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123) The pivot joint found between the atlas and axis vertebrae is a type of:

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124) If a base at position 901 is deleted in an RNA of 999 bases (coding for 333 amino acids), how many codons will be altered?

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125) The life cycles of Ectocarpus and Fucus are respectively:

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126) Which of the following diseases is caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction?

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127) Among the following options, which ecosystem is known to have the maximum biomass?

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128) In human reproduction, the process of 'Capacitation' (functional maturation of sperm) occurs in the:

129 / 180

129) Which of the following best describes the electrical charge of DNA fragments?

130 / 180

130) The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome in a eukaryotic cell indicates that:

131 / 180

131) What was the specific period during which Gregor Mendel conducted his hybridization experiments on garden peas?

132 / 180

132) In Bougainvillea, the sharp, pointed structures known as thorns are modifications of the:

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133) Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH), a hypothalamic hormone, acts directly on the:

134 / 180

134) Lungs are composed of millions of alveoli. They do not collapse even after a forceful expiration because of:

135 / 180

135) Which of the following plant characters was NOT considered by Mendel in his classic pea experiments?

136 / 180

136) In an angiosperm, the functional megaspore eventually develops into the:

137 / 180

137) After separation by agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining with:

138 / 180

138) In humans, how many pairs of ribs are "True ribs" and what is their attachment?

139 / 180

139) In a logistic growth curve, an asymptote (plateau) is reached when:

140 / 180

140) Regarding factors affecting photosynthesis, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

141 / 180

141) A husband has genotype I^A I^B and a wife has genotype I^A i. How many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible among their children?

142 / 180

142) Zygotic meiosis is a characteristic feature of which of the following organisms?

143 / 180

143) Which of the following is correctly matched with the industrial product it produces?

144 / 180

144) Which of the following statements regarding the Krebs' cycle (TCA cycle) is INCORRECT?

145 / 180

145) In the phylum Porifera, the central cavity (spongocoel) is lined with specialized flagellated cells called:

146 / 180

146) Which of the following types of RNA is typically the most abundant within an animal cell?

147 / 180

147) Which of the following sets represents a correct combination of aquatic mammals?

148 / 180

148) The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is always:

149 / 180

149) 'Bt' in Bt-cotton refers to:

150 / 180

150) Which type of antibody is most abundant in Colostrum (initial milk)?

151 / 180

151) The term 'Ecosystem' was coined by:

152 / 180

152) Which of the following is the 'Start Codon' during translation?

153 / 180

153) What is the ploidy level of the 'Endosperm' in most flowering plants?

154 / 180

154) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of phases in the Cell Cycle?

155 / 180

155) The interaction where one species is harmed and the other is unaffected is:

156 / 180

156) Which of the following is a viral disease?

157 / 180

157) In 'Double Fertilization' in angiosperms, one male gamete fuses with the egg and the other with:

158 / 180

158) The 'Theory of Natural Selection' was proposed by:

159 / 180

159) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 'r-selected' species?

160 / 180

160) The relationship between an Orchid growing on a Mango branch is an example of:

161 / 180

161) 'Golden Rice' is a genetically modified variety rich in:

162 / 180

162) Which part of the human brain is primarily responsible for maintaining body balance and posture?

163 / 180

163) The 'Saheli' contraceptive pill was developed by scientists at:

164 / 180

164) In a monohybrid cross, what is the expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation?

165 / 180

165) Which of the following is a classic example of a 'Vestigial Organ' in humans?

166 / 180

166) The functional unit of the human kidney is the:

167 / 180

167) Which hormone is responsible for the 'Fight or Flight' response in humans?

168 / 180

168) The 'Montreal Protocol' was signed in 1987 to control the emission of:

169 / 180

169) In a DNA molecule, the distance between two consecutive base pairs is approximately:

170 / 180

170) Which of the following is a 'Restriction Endonuclease'?

171 / 180

171) The DNA polymerase enzyme used in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is isolated from:

172 / 180

172) In the context of global warming, which of the following is considered a 'Greenhouse Gas'?

173 / 180

173) Which of the following is an example of 'Adaptive Radiation'?

174 / 180

174) The process of 'Splicing' in eukaryotic gene expression involves:

175 / 180

175) Which immune response is primarily responsible for the rejection of a transplanted organ?

176 / 180

176) Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food. Select the best option from the following statements:

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.

(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

177 / 180

177) Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select the correct option.

Column - I      Column - II

 (a) Gonorrhea    (i) HIV


  (b) Syphilis   (ii) Neisseria

 (c) Genital Warts  (iii) Treponema


(d) AIDS          (iv) Human Papilloma


                                                                     

178 / 180

178) Select the mismatch :

179 / 180

179) Read the following statements regarding the 'Kranz' anatomy and select the correct option.

  • Statement I: The bundle sheath cells of C_4 plants have a large number of thick-walled chloroplasts that lack grana.

  • Statement II: The primary CO_2 fixation in C_4 plants occurs in the bundle sheath cells via the enzyme RuBisCO.

180 / 180

180) Assertion (A): A person suffering from Diabetes Insipidus feels excessive thirst and passes large amounts of dilute urine.
Reason (R): There is a hyposecretion of ADH (Vasopressin) from the posterior pituitary, leading to decreased water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts.

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